Latest NCLEX NCLEX-RN Test Answers | Valid NCLEX-RN Study Guide
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NCLEX-RN exam is a critical step in the process of becoming a licensed RN in the United States. NCLEX-RN exam is designed to ensure that all RNs possess the knowledge and skills necessary to provide safe and effective care to patients. Students should take advantage of nursing program resources and test preparation materials to ensure that they are fully prepared to pass the exam and begin their careers as RNs.
NCLEX-RN (National Council Licensure Examination for Registered Nurses) is one of the most important exams for aspiring nurses in the United States. NCLEX-RN Exam is designed to evaluate the competency of nursing graduates and ensure that they have the necessary knowledge and skills to provide safe and effective patient care. Passing the NCLEX-RN is a requirement for obtaining a nursing license in most states.
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NCLEX NCLEX-RN exam dumps are important because they show you where you stand. After learning everything related to the National Council Licensure Examination(NCLEX-RN) (NCLEX-RN)certification, it is the right time to take a self-test and check whether you can clear the National Council Licensure Examination(NCLEX-RN) (NCLEX-RN) certification exam or not. People who score well on the National Council Licensure Examination(NCLEX-RN) (NCLEX-RN) practice questions are ready to give the final National Council Licensure Examination(NCLEX-RN) (NCLEX-RN) exam.
NCLEX-RN exam is administered by the National Council of State Boards of Nursing (NCSBN), and its content is based on the knowledge and skills necessary for the entry-level practice of registered nursing. NCLEX-RN exam is designed to ensure that nurses are prepared to provide safe and effective care to patients in a variety of healthcare settings. Passing the NCLEX-RN Exam is a requirement for licensure as a registered nurse in the US, and it is critical for aspiring nurses to prepare thoroughly for the exam to achieve success.
NCLEX National Council Licensure Examination(NCLEX-RN) Sample Questions (Q824-Q829):
NEW QUESTION # 824
After 3 weeks of treatment, a severely depressed client suddenly begins to feel better and starts interacting appropriately with other clients and staff. The nurse knows that this client has an increased risk for:
- A. Exacerbation of depressive symptoms
- B. Violence toward others
- C. Psychotic behavior
- D. Suicide
Answer: D
Explanation:
Section: Questions Set A
Explanation:
(A) When the severely depressed client suddenly begins to feel better, it often indicates that the client has made the decision to kill himself or herself and has developed a plan to do so. (B) Improvement in behavior is not indicative of an exacerbation of depressive symptoms. (C) The depressed client has a tendency for self- violence, not violence toward others. (D) Depressive behavior is not always accompanied by psychotic behavior.
NEW QUESTION # 825
Medication is administered to a client who has been placed in restraints after a sudden violent episode, and his EPSs subside. Restraints can be removed when:
- A. The physician orders it
- B. The nurse deems that removal of restraints is necessary
- C. The violent behavior subsides, and the client agrees to behave
- D. A therapeutic alliance has been established, and violent behavior subsides
Answer: D
Explanation:
(A) The physicianmayorder release of restraints, but prior to that, the client must meet criteria for release. (B) While the client is still restrained, but after violent behavior has subsided, a therapeutic bridge is built. This alliance encourages dialogue between nurse and client, allowing the client to determine causative factors, feelings prior to loss of control, and adaptive alternatives to violence. (C) If the client only "agrees to behave" after violent behavior subsides, he has developed no insight into cause and effect of violence or his response to stress. (D)Removal of restraints occurs only when the client meets the criteria for release, not just because the nurse says it is necessary.
NEW QUESTION # 826
At her first prenatal visit, a 21-year-old woman who is gravida 2, para 0, ab 1, is currently at 32 weeks' gestation and has a history of drug abuse, smoking, and occasional ethyl alcohol use. Fetal ultrasound tests indicate poor fetal growth. The most likely reason for the infant's intrauterine growth retardation is:
- A. The client's late prenatal care
- B. The client's previous abortion
- C. The client's young age
- D. The client's history of drug, ethyl alcohol, and tobacco use
Answer: D
Explanation:
Explanation
(A) Although adolescents frequently have a higher incidence of low-birth-weight infants, this client is 21 years old. (B) Uncomplicated induced abortions have not been proved to influence the growth of infants of subsequent pregnancies. (C) Compounds in cigarettes and some illicit drugs cause maternal vasoconstriction and a subsequent reduction in O2 availability for the fetus owing to the resulting reduction in uteroplacental blood flow. As few as one or two drinks of alcohol per day will decrease birth weight. (D) Although early prenatal care has been shown to improve pregnancy outcomes, not seeking care until the second week of gestation does not, in and of itself, cause intrauterine growth retardation.
NEW QUESTION # 827
A 74-year-old client seen in the emergency room is exhibiting signs of delirium. His family states that he has not slept, eaten, or taken fluids for the past 24 hours. The planning of nursing care for a delirious client is based on which of the following premises?
- A. The delirious client is capable of returning to his previous level of functioning.
- B. Delirium entails progressive intellectual and behavioral deterioration.
- C. Delirium is an insidious process.
- D. The delirious client is incapable of returning to his previous level of functioning.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
(A) This answer is correct. If the cause is removed, the delirious client will recover completely. (B) This answer is incorrect. The demented client is incapable of returning to previous level of functioning. The delirious client is capable of returning to previous functioning. (C) This answer is incorrect. The demented client, not the delirious client, has progressive intellectual and behavioral deterioration. (D) This answer is incorrect. Delirium develops rapidly, whereas dementia is insidious.
NEW QUESTION # 828
The nurse notes multiple bruises on the arms and legs of a newly admitted client with lupus. The client states, "I get them whenever I bump into anything." The nurse would expect to note a decrease in which of the following laboratory tests?
- A. Number of platelets
- B. WBC count
- C. Hemoglobin level
- D. Number of lymphocytes
Answer: A
Explanation:
(A) Thrombocytopenia, a decrease in platelets, occurs in lupus and causes a decrease in blood coagulation and thrombus formation. (B) Clients with lupus will have a decrease in the WBC count decreasing their resistance to infection. (C) Clients with lupus may have a decrease in the hemoglobin level causing anemia. (D) Leukopenia, a decrease in white blood cells, is seen in lupus and decreases resistance to infection.
NEW QUESTION # 829
......
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